Shakespeare has Macbeth, in his “If it were done when ’tis done” speech, say “That but this blow/ Might be the be all, and the end all,” and like so many of his catchy bits, this has passed into general discourse. But in what form? Aye, there’s the rub. All the dictionaries I routinely consult—M-W, AHD, and the Concise Oxford—have it only as “be-all and end-all” (with or without hyphens), which is what I myself say, but it has come to my attention that many people omit the “and” and reverse the order, saying “end all, be all.” The reverse order has fairly hoary precedent (the OED quotes T. P. Thompson’s 1830 Exercises: “This is the end-all and be-all of the anti-liberals’ piety”), but the omission of the conjunction strikes me as odd. We still have judgment here, though it counts for nothing in the scheme of things, so I appeal to the assembled multitudes. Screw your courage to the sticking-place, and tell us what form you use, and whether you’re familiar with the Shakespearian source.