It popped into my head to wonder about the origin of the titular phrase: did it ascend to antiquity? Was its origin in the Greco-Roman classics, the Bible, ancient Sumer? Imagine my surprise when I turned to the OED (s.v. ox, entry revised 2005) and found:
1.c. Chiefly U.S. [Apparently in allusion to a response given by Martin Luther (1483–1546) at the Diet of Worms (1521).] In collocation with gored. An interest that is threatened or harmed. Chiefly in whose ox is gored.
1843 If the Democrats, under like circumstances, had made such a declaration, the welkin would have rung and rung again with anathemas against repudiation. But it makes a difference whose ox is gored.
Brooklyn Eagle & Kings County Democrat 7 August 2/21885 This is a doctrine which if allowed, will be adopted very much on the principle of whose ‘ox is gored’.
American Naturalist vol. 19 5931901 It makes a difference whose ox is gored, it seems.
F. Norris, Octopus ii. iv. 4421973 He was widely known as a dare-devil who carried out his intentions without caring whose ox was gored.
V. C. Ike, Potter’s Wheel (1974) ix. 681994 Every teaching institution will have its department of cultural studies, an ox not to be gored.
H. Bloom, Western Canon i. i. 15
(I note, with the usual sorrow and deprecation, that the 1885 American Naturalist citation, which you can see in situ here, has an actual author, and a famous one at that: Edward Drinker Cope.) So not only is it not an ancient and universally recognized phrase, it is “Chiefly U.S.” and only goes back to 1845! Anyone know the alleged Martin Luther source?
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