The Fate of Eth in Scandinavian.

Another intriguing Facebook post by Nelson Goering (I’ve added itals where appropriate):

Einar Haugen has this to say about the fate of ð/d in later Scandinavian:

“In all Sc except Ic it normally disappeared after vowels, e.g. CSc veþr weather > veðr > NW vær/Sw dial vär… In Da Sw NN DN it was later restored in the spelling of a number of words, and from this developed a spelling pronunciation with d… In its function as a preterite suffix -ð- was often preserved, or even sharpened to -t-, e.g. CSc svaraði > Da svarede/Sw svarade/DN svārte, but NN svara (older svarade).” (The Scandinavian Languages, pp. 266-7, Sect. 11.3.15)

My question is about the last part, the “sharpening”. Is this usually regarded as a phonological development (and if so, are there any parallels from other morphological contexts), or as (like I’ve sort of vaguely been assuming, without having ever given any real thought to it) an analogical generalization from those verbs in which -t- developed regularly (e.g. vakþi/vakti > vakte). I grant that such verbs aren’t all that numerous in the grand scheme of things, but there are a certain number, and if speakers were looking for a more characterized preterite at the time of d-loss, they’d be a ready source.

I’ll copy Nelson’s conclusion: Any thoughts, or pointers to interesting discussions?

Comments

  1. Trond Engen says

    Is this for me? Nelson himself is much better placed to answer his own questions, but I own Norsk språkhistorie, and in vol. 1 Mønster, p. 261 I find:

    Det har blitt hevdet at nå-klassen oppstår fordi talerne har ønsket at preteritum skulle komme tydelig til uttrykk. Når ð ble borte, skulle det etter dette synet være behov for tydeligere preteritumsmerking (Seip 1955). Dette virker ikke så sannsynlig, for det fins østlandsmål som har /kaste/ både i infinitiv, presens, preteritum og supinum, og vestlandsmål som har /kasta/ i alle fire former; ønsket om om tydelig preteritumsmerking veier tydeligvis ikke alltid så tungt. Preteritumsformer som /dø:e/ (døde) fins også i norske dialekter, så preteritum kan godt uttrykkes bare ved en vokal.

    En annen faktor har nok vært viktigere for oppkomsten av nå-klassen. Verb med stamme som ender på ð, får i gammelnorsk preteritum på ddi. For eksempel er pret. 3.pers. ent. ind. av klæða ‘kle, dekke’ klæddi, av fǿða fǿddi. Når /ð/ faller bort, vil de respektive infinitivene bli *klæa, fǿa, og da kan en tolke klæddi, fǿddi ikke lenger som klæð + ði, fǿð + ði, men som klæ + ddi, fǿ + ddi; det skjer en reanalyse av av hvor grensa mellom stamme og suffiks går. Den nye bøyningsmåten med dde-preteritum sprer seg så analogisk; nå-klassen får gradvis tilførsel av nye medlemmer i mellomnorsk tid. Når f.eks. infinitiv av búa ‘bo’ går over til å være bu, av flýja ‘rømme, fly’ til fly, er det ikke rart om disse også går over til nå-klassen, fordi de da ar enstavet infinitiv, som nå-klassen jo har (jf. Jansson 1948, Dammel 2011).

    English tl;dr:

    The nå-class came about through phonological changes, reanalysis, and subsequent attraction of new members

    Tis is just the first (sub-)class of verbs, the nå-class consisting of verbs with CV infinitives. But the rest seems to follow in rioughly the same manner, just adding more epicycles of regular change and analogical levelling.

  2. Trond Engen says

    That was a lot of punching. There are probably some errors, but the edit window cut me short after I reloaded, so that’ll have to do. But I can’t help mentioning the annoying strike at the bottom. That was meant to strike out the epi before cycles.

    Edit: And now it’s back, so I fixed it.

  3. As always, I apologize for the cranky behavior of my software.

  4. Preterites like nådde are a slightly different case, I think. What sparked my interest was Haugen suggesting, if I’ve read him right, that Norse svaraði became <svarte by a process of “sharpening” the (normally lost!) ð to t. This implied not only retention, but alteration, of a sound that “should” have been lost, because of morphological pressure. A pretty remarkable case, if true — but it sounds like not too many people would follow Haugen in this.

  5. Nelson Goering says

    Though, I should say, an interesting different case! Thanks for the quotation.

  6. Trond Engen says

    Yes, it’s different, but glancing through the rest of the chapter, it looked like this was the most thorough explanation, and that the rest follows from different forms of analogy. Clearly not the phonological process that Haugen seems to suggest, though. I’ll have a closer look and see what I can make of it. But probably not today.

  7. David Marjanović says

    If there isn’t any other > t, it can hardly be a sound change, can it?

    I’ll be back later with analogically triple-marked subjunctive forms from my dialect.

  8. “it can hardly be a sound change, can it?”

    Not just with r, but yes, that seems rather a sticking point.

  9. Here’s a FB comment by Sverre Stausland:

    First, let’s forget about D[ano]-N[orwegian] and take South-Western Norwegian instead, where preterite forms such as ‘danste’, ‘syklte’, etc. are rampant.

    The idea that these are syncopated forms from older ‘dans(a)de’ goes back to Ivar Aasen. I wasn’t aware that Haugen believed this too.

    I don’t think many people, if any, believe this today. It’s generally explained as analogy with the other class of weak verbs that have -te in their preterite forms. It also makes perfect sense that this would be most widespread in South-Western Norway, as the a-verbs are identical in all forms there. So without the analogy, we would have ‘dansa’ (inf/pres/pret/perf).

    There is some literature on this, but not off the top of my head.

  10. Trond Engen says

    Looks good to me. Not that I can compete with the top of Sverre Stausland’s head!

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